Monday, November 19, 2007

Jesus... the Failure?


One of the commenters on the "tattoo" post from a few days ago has mentioned the idea that Jesus came to reestablish the Mosaic Law and never intended for his message to go to anyone but Israel. The idea that Jesus was just like the prophets that went before him would also be included in this idea. The idea is one put forward by many Muslims and perhaps other groups though I'm not sure about that.

I don't believe this idea to be true but I've considered it in the last few days. One conclusion that I come to is that if this was Jesus' purpose then he could rightly be considered a complete failure as a prophet.

Consider:

1.) If he came to reestablish the Mosaic Law he instead did quite the opposite. His teaching and leadership instigated a radical "sect" of Judaism (Christianity) that declared that though the Law was good they didn't have to fulfill the civil or ceremonial component of the Law. So they threw off the dietary commands, the commands about mixing with people of other races, the Temple worship, and all the feasts and sacrifices. They even spoke of a "New Covenant" which Jesus had made mention of just before his death (or disappearance). Mosaic Law, as Israel knew it in Moses' day, was definitely not renewed.

Where is the record of the resurgence in Law-focused Jewish devotion that would have been brought about by a prophet of his stature? After all, he was called Messiah.

To my knowledge, there is absolutely no record of a wave of Law-focused Jewish devotion as a result of Jesus' ministry.

2.) His message, though it's asserted that it was for Israel alone, ended up spreading out across the whole world and continues to spread to this very day. So it would seem that his followers got it wrong when they fanned out from Jerusalem immediately following his death/disappearance. Either he hadn't trained them well or there was some big misunderstanding on their part. They began specifically spreading this message to other nations and didn't encourage them to become Jews.... rather they were to worship Jesus himself!

3.) Unlike the premier prophets that came before him he never delivered a unified "revelation" from God. He also didn't manage to get his "revelations" written down like the other prophets before him, namely Moses, or the one who would come after him like Mohammad some 600 years later. If he was given a revelation we don't have it. We do have what his followers wrote about him but this doesn't fit the format of other prophets before and after. Some might say that perhaps his revelation was lost but this seems like a preposterous thought given the weight and honor and value that his own written words would have had. His own writings would have far outweighed any writings of his followers.

The lack of a written revelation could be considered a major failure as a prophet.

4.) Referring to the end of my point #2, it could be considered a major failure that his key followers began a "sect" that encouraged the worship of him, that equated him with God, and posed some "trinity" within the One God breaking with conventional Jewish thought. It would be one thing if a 'break-away' group of renegade followers started this. But these were his chosen lieutenants. This would be the greatest failure of all perhaps.

Let me re-iterate; I do not believe what I've written above in points 1-4 to be true. I'm merely trying to illustrate how Jesus could not have been considered a success as a prophet of God AND be one who sought to reestablish the Mosaic Law and get his message out exclusively to the people of Israel.

To my Muslim friends this imagining might seem blasphemous. For they hold Jesus in high regard. So I hope you understand my desire to simply illustrate a hypothetical situation.

What do you think?

2 comments:

berry said...

interesting point.

Anonymous said...

Hey Brian

It’s Bassam, just browsing through your blog after you gave me the link. Some points I want to make regarding your post.

1) The Gospels show that Jesus taught the people that faith and good deeds together would bring them salvation. (Matthew 19:16-21) just as the Old Testament affirmed (Ezekiel 18:21-22)
2) Jesus told the people to follow the commandments of the Old Testament (Mark 7:10, Luke 5:14)
3) Jesus emphasized to his followers to obey everything that the teachers of the law told them (Matthew 23:1-3).
4) Even Muslims believe that Jesus received a new revelation “The Gospel”. Obviously he wasn’t only following the Torah. Muslims even believe that certain parts of the Torah were abrogated, but not the entire of message and creed. It doesn’t change the fact that Jesus emphasized the Torah greatly.
5) As for Jesus’ followers, why didn’t you mention the fact that many Judaic Christians who believed that Jesus was a Prophet yet still practiced the law were there. Why you are assuming that they are not the true followers but the ones that agree with your theology are?
6) As for Jesus’ message being restricted to only the Jews. I personally think that this is a development that occurred throughout the Gospel accounts. First of all, no where do we see Jesus making mention of this in the Gospel of Mark (except in the last few verses that have been declared a forgery by a great number of Christian scholars, thus this won’t count). Then in Matthew we see Jesus saying that he only came to the Jews (Matthew 15:24) and then later in Matthew and the other gospels we see that Jesus ordered the message to be taken to the world. The way Christians reconcile these passages is not very convincing. They argued that going only to the Jews was Jesus’ initial plan and then it was to the rest of the world. But this doesn’t seem very convincing if we look at the way Jesus uttered the statement in Matthew 15:24. Plus, can’t I also equally reconcile those passages by saying that when Jesus meant to say to take the message across the world then it meant only to the Jews across the world since they were spread out? So what I am trying to say is that Jesus issuing the order for the message to be taken to everyone is not clear. You are just erroneously assuming that the early Christians that agree with your theology had the correct interpretation.
7) I am pretty sure that I have misunderstood what you said regarding Jesus not delivering a revelation to his people from God. Because I am quite surprised by the comment. So I will first like to ask you what you mean by that. Because the Gospels do show that Jesus was preaching a Gospel (which is revelation) to the people (Matthew 4:23) and that Jesus wouldn’t say anything unless God revealed it to him (John 12:49-50, 14:24)
8) As for you trying to defend the notion that Jesus could not have had something written down for if he did then it must have definitely been preserved is only based on personal speculation. People would have had every motive possible to get rid of the true revelation so that they can write their own forgeries. Plus, you keep speaking with absolute confidence that the Gospels that you have today have actually been written by Jesus’ disciples themselves while both I and you know very well that there is no factual evidence to prove that. You must only put your trust in the early Church fathers who attributed these books to them. As for saying that the lack of a written revelation is considered a failure for a Prophet… well this is false. In Islam we believe that on the Day of Judgment Prophets would come forth to God telling Him that no one accepted their message and that everyone rejected them. Do we consider these Prophets as failures? Absolutely not. They did their role. They did their job. They obeyed God and preached the message revealed to them. The failures are those that rejected them, distorted their message and deceived others.


So, I really don’t think that you have given any really convincing arguments.


BUT WE CAN STILL HAVE DINNER AT CHILLIS RIGHT? 